Hey Guys/Gals
So just doing a little bit more research on different compounds (can never know too much) That i may or may not use in the future and i came across the steroid profile for Oxandrolone (Anavar) on the main page of www.steroid.com and came across this interesting paragraph..
"The third reason which speaks well for an intake of Oxandrolone is that even in a very high dosage this compound does not influence the body's own testosterone production. To make this clear: Oxandrolone does not suppress the body's own hormone production.
The reason is that it does not have a negative feedback mechanism on the hypothalamohypophysial testicular axis, meaning that during the intake of Oxandrolone, unlike during the intake of most anabolic steroids, the testes signal the hypothalamus not to reduce or to stop the release of GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) and LHRH Luteinizing hormone releasing hormone). This special feature of Oxandrolone can be explained by the fact that the substance is not converted into estrogen Oxandrolone (Anavar), when given to normal men in high doses does not reduce the seminal volume or count, nor can it be converted (aromatized) into estrogen."
Now as far as i was aware from what I've read/heard around different boards and even information I've given to other newbies asking questions about Anavar is that you shouldn't use it as an oral only cycle mainly because it will shut down your natural test production or at the very least severely suppress it, but the main page of this website (were I've seen it said many times on the board that it shuts you down) completely contradicts what I've been told about Anavar,
Anyone care to explain why it says this? Am i missing something? Or is this a mistake?
Cheers,
So just doing a little bit more research on different compounds (can never know too much) That i may or may not use in the future and i came across the steroid profile for Oxandrolone (Anavar) on the main page of www.steroid.com and came across this interesting paragraph..
"The third reason which speaks well for an intake of Oxandrolone is that even in a very high dosage this compound does not influence the body's own testosterone production. To make this clear: Oxandrolone does not suppress the body's own hormone production.
The reason is that it does not have a negative feedback mechanism on the hypothalamohypophysial testicular axis, meaning that during the intake of Oxandrolone, unlike during the intake of most anabolic steroids, the testes signal the hypothalamus not to reduce or to stop the release of GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) and LHRH Luteinizing hormone releasing hormone). This special feature of Oxandrolone can be explained by the fact that the substance is not converted into estrogen Oxandrolone (Anavar), when given to normal men in high doses does not reduce the seminal volume or count, nor can it be converted (aromatized) into estrogen."
Now as far as i was aware from what I've read/heard around different boards and even information I've given to other newbies asking questions about Anavar is that you shouldn't use it as an oral only cycle mainly because it will shut down your natural test production or at the very least severely suppress it, but the main page of this website (were I've seen it said many times on the board that it shuts you down) completely contradicts what I've been told about Anavar,
Anyone care to explain why it says this? Am i missing something? Or is this a mistake?
Cheers,
Might have to change this...
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